Daily Quiz

Solution (d)
Explanation:
• Section 7(g) of the Act allows personal data processing during medical emergencies, such as epidemics, without requiring consent. This is intended to ensure swift action in public health crises but has raised concerns about its potential misuse.
• Section 15(c) mandates that citizens ensure the accuracy of their submitted data and prohibits the suppression of material information. This aims to enhance data accuracy but could penalize individuals for unintentional errors, such as outdated information.
• Section 7(i) exempts the government from consent requirements for processing personal data related to employment, raising concerns as the government is India’s largest employer. This clause may allow unchecked use of personal data for surveillance or other purposes.
• While the Act outlines provisions for protecting personal data, it does not explicitly ensure transparency in the use of AI technologies for surveillance. Instead, critics argue that the Act’s exemptions and broad government powers could enable unregulated use of AI-driven surveillance, potentially violating individual privacy. (Option (d) is correct)

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/the-legal-gaps-in-indias-unregulated-ai-surveillance/article68996389.ece#:~:text=Though%20the%20DPDP%20Act%20addresses,of%20data%20sharing%20is%20crucial.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The Indo-Maldives Agreement (1988) has provisions where India intervened militarily in the Maldives and later facilitated troop withdrawal after stabilizing the situation. (Option (a) is incorrect)
• The India-Sri Lanka Peace Accord (1987) aimed to address the Tamil minority’s grievances by devolving power to provincial councils in Sri Lanka. It sought to ensure the protection of Tamil rights while preserving Sri Lanka’s sovereignty, marking an effort to end ethnic violence in the Northern and Eastern Provinces. (Option (b) is correct)
• The 1974 and 1976 Indo-Sri Lanka Agreements resolved the maritime boundary dispute, including the transfer of Kachchatheevu Island. (Option (c) is incorrect)
• India’s military intervention under the accord (deployment of the Indian Peace Keeping Force (IPKF)) was meant to oversee the ceasefire and disarmament of the LTTE, not to assist the Sri Lankan government militarily. (Option (d) is incorrect)

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/editorial/%E2%80%8Bmore-of-the-same-on-the-sri-lankan-presidents-india-visit/article68996571.ece

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Minerva Mills (1980) reaffirmed the Basic Structure Doctrine and held that limited amending power is part of the Constitution’s Basic Structure. It primarily addressed the tension between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy.
• R. Bommai (1994) emphasized the Basic Structure Doctrine but focused on federalism and the limitations on imposing President’s Rule under Article 356. It did not deal with Article 30 rights.
• Kesavananda Bharati (1973) introduced the Basic Structure Doctrine, stating that Parliament cannot amend the Basic Structure of the Constitution. Rights under Article 30 (protection of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions) were explicitly recognized as part of the Basic Structure. (Option (c) is correct)
• Golaknath (1967) ruled that Fundamental Rights cannot be amended by Parliament, but it did not recognize the Basic Structure Doctrine. This decision was later overruled in Kesavananda Bharati (1973).

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/the-constitution-on-minority-rights/article68995551.ece#:~:text=Article%2029(1)%20lays%20down,provision%20signifies%20two%20vital%20dimensions.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The NABH initiative was introduced in the Union Budget 2018 to promote the development of infrastructure and enhance India’s aviation capacity in line with the rising demand for air travel. (Statement 1 is correct)
• The NABH Nirman program aims to increase India’s airport capacity by over five times, enabling the country to handle a billion trips annually. This aligns with the government’s vision to make air travel accessible and affordable under the UDAN (Ude Desh ka Aam Nagrik) scheme. (Statement 2 is correct)
• NABH focuses on developing both Brownfield airports (upgrading existing airports) and Greenfield airports (building new airports). This dual approach ensures balanced development to meet growing demand. (Statement 3 is correct)

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/private-aviation-is-releasing-more-than-its-fair-share-of-emissions/article68988382.ece#:~:text=A%20recent%20study%20in%20Nature,is%20expected%20to%20grow%20further.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Arctic Tundra is characterized as a frozen, treeless biome dominated by permafrost (permanently frozen ground) and sparse vegetation like mosses, lichens, and grasses. This biome exists under extreme cold conditions, primarily in regions such as northern Alaska, Siberia, and Canada. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Recent research shows that the Arctic Tundra, once a carbon sink, has now become a carbon source, emitting more CO2 and methane (CH4) due to rising temperatures and the thawing of permafrost. The Arctic is warming at four times the global rate, which accelerates the release of greenhouse gases stored in the permafrost. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
• Wildfires in the Arctic have increased in both frequency and intensity, adding to greenhouse gas emissions. Wildfire smoke contributes additional GHGs to the atmosphere and accelerates the thawing of permafrost, releasing stored carbon and methane. 2024 was noted as the second-biggest year for wildfire emissions, following record-breaking wildfires in recent years. (Statement 3 is correct)

Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/arctic-tundra-emit-carbon-absorb-9728512/