Daily Quiz 7 November 2024
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                        Question 1 of 51. QuestionThe ‘education, including technical education, medical education, and universities’ entry is included in which of the following list of the Seventh Schedule? Correct
 Solution (c) 
 Explanation:
 • The Union List includes subjects on which only the central government can legislate. These subjects typically require a uniform approach across the country and include areas like defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, and banking.
 • The State List includes subjects on which only the state governments can legislate, as they are primarily state concerns. Examples include police, public health, and agriculture. While primary and secondary education was historically part of the State List, the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 moved education, including technical and medical education, to the Concurrent List.
 • The Concurrent List includes subjects on which both the central and state governments can legislate. “Education, including technical education, medical education, and universities” was moved to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. This change allows both the Union and the states to make laws on education, ensuring a more coordinated approach to educational standards and policies across the country. Entry 25 of the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India is about education, including technical education, medical education, and universities. (Option (c) is correct)
 • The Residuary List covers subjects not mentioned in any of the three lists (Union, State, or Concurrent). The central government has the exclusive power to legislate on these matters. Examples include subjects that have emerged due to advancements in technology, such as cybersecurity or space exploration.Incorrect
 Solution (c) 
 Explanation:
 • The Union List includes subjects on which only the central government can legislate. These subjects typically require a uniform approach across the country and include areas like defense, foreign affairs, atomic energy, and banking.
 • The State List includes subjects on which only the state governments can legislate, as they are primarily state concerns. Examples include police, public health, and agriculture. While primary and secondary education was historically part of the State List, the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 moved education, including technical and medical education, to the Concurrent List.
 • The Concurrent List includes subjects on which both the central and state governments can legislate. “Education, including technical education, medical education, and universities” was moved to the Concurrent List by the 42nd Amendment Act of 1976. This change allows both the Union and the states to make laws on education, ensuring a more coordinated approach to educational standards and policies across the country. Entry 25 of the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India is about education, including technical education, medical education, and universities. (Option (c) is correct)
 • The Residuary List covers subjects not mentioned in any of the three lists (Union, State, or Concurrent). The central government has the exclusive power to legislate on these matters. Examples include subjects that have emerged due to advancements in technology, such as cybersecurity or space exploration.
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                        Question 2 of 52. QuestionThe recently approved Central Sector Scheme, PM Vidyalaxmi, is associated with which of the following sectors? Correct
 Solution (d) Explanation: - The MSME sector (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises) in India is supported by various schemes to boost entrepreneurship and employment. Notable schemes include PMEGP (Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme), which provides financial support for setting up new MSME units, and Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE), offering collateral-free loans to MSMEs. (Option (a) is incorrect)
- The Primary Education sector includes initiatives focused on enhancing basic education for children. Schemes such as Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan and Mid-Day Meal Scheme aim to improve primary school enrolment, retention, and learning outcomes. (Option (b) is incorrect)
- The Infrastructure sector in India covers large-scale development projects in transportation, energy, water, and sanitation. Programs like the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) and Bharatmala Pariyojana are geared towards expanding infrastructure for economic growth. (Option (c) is incorrect)
- The PM Vidyalaxmi scheme is directly associated with the Higher Education sector. Recently approved by the Union Cabinet, this Central Sector scheme provides financial support to meritorious students pursuing higher education. (Option (d) is correct)
- Under the scheme –
- Eligible students admitted to top 860 Quality Higher Education Institutions (QHEIs), both government & private, can receive collateral-free, guarantor-free loans from banks for tuition fees & other expenses.
- For loans up to ₹7.5 lakh, a 75% credit guarantee is provided to banks, facilitating easier access to education loans for students.
- The scheme has an outlay of ₹3,600 crore from 2024-25 to 2030-31 and is expected to benefit around 22 lakh students.
 
 Incorrect
 Solution (d) Explanation: - The MSME sector (Micro, Small, and Medium Enterprises) in India is supported by various schemes to boost entrepreneurship and employment. Notable schemes include PMEGP (Prime Minister’s Employment Generation Programme), which provides financial support for setting up new MSME units, and Credit Guarantee Fund Trust for Micro and Small Enterprises (CGTMSE), offering collateral-free loans to MSMEs. (Option (a) is incorrect)
- The Primary Education sector includes initiatives focused on enhancing basic education for children. Schemes such as Samagra Shiksha Abhiyan and Mid-Day Meal Scheme aim to improve primary school enrolment, retention, and learning outcomes. (Option (b) is incorrect)
- The Infrastructure sector in India covers large-scale development projects in transportation, energy, water, and sanitation. Programs like the National Infrastructure Pipeline (NIP) and Bharatmala Pariyojana are geared towards expanding infrastructure for economic growth. (Option (c) is incorrect)
- The PM Vidyalaxmi scheme is directly associated with the Higher Education sector. Recently approved by the Union Cabinet, this Central Sector scheme provides financial support to meritorious students pursuing higher education. (Option (d) is correct)
- Under the scheme –
- Eligible students admitted to top 860 Quality Higher Education Institutions (QHEIs), both government & private, can receive collateral-free, guarantor-free loans from banks for tuition fees & other expenses.
- For loans up to ₹7.5 lakh, a 75% credit guarantee is provided to banks, facilitating easier access to education loans for students.
- The scheme has an outlay of ₹3,600 crore from 2024-25 to 2030-31 and is expected to benefit around 22 lakh students.
 
 
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                        Question 3 of 53. QuestionThe Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) initiative is under which of the following organisation? Correct
 Solution (a) Explanation: - Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) is the operational framework of the Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO), which was established under the Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence. iDEX aims to promote innovation and technology development in the defence sector by encouraging startups, MSMEs, and individual innovators to contribute to military technology advancements. DIO supports initiatives like the Defence India Startup Challenge (DISC), inviting innovative solutions for defence and aerospace. (Option (a) is correct)
- DRDO is the primary R&D organization under the Ministry of Defence, responsible for developing technology for India’s armed forces, including missiles, electronics, and weapon systems. Although DRDO collaborates with iDEX on certain projects, it is not the governing or operational body for iDEX, as DRDO focuses on in-house research and development rather than open innovation with external startups and MSMEs.
- BIS is a national standards body under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution. BIS focuses on establishing and maintaining quality standards for products and services across various industries in India.
- NIF is an autonomous body under the Department of Science and Technology, promoting grassroots innovation and recognizing local inventors. While NIF supports general technological and scientific innovations, it is not specifically focused on defence technology.
 Incorrect
 Solution (a) Explanation: - Innovations for Defence Excellence (iDEX) is the operational framework of the Defence Innovation Organisation (DIO), which was established under the Department of Defence Production, Ministry of Defence. iDEX aims to promote innovation and technology development in the defence sector by encouraging startups, MSMEs, and individual innovators to contribute to military technology advancements. DIO supports initiatives like the Defence India Startup Challenge (DISC), inviting innovative solutions for defence and aerospace. (Option (a) is correct)
- DRDO is the primary R&D organization under the Ministry of Defence, responsible for developing technology for India’s armed forces, including missiles, electronics, and weapon systems. Although DRDO collaborates with iDEX on certain projects, it is not the governing or operational body for iDEX, as DRDO focuses on in-house research and development rather than open innovation with external startups and MSMEs.
- BIS is a national standards body under the Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food, and Public Distribution. BIS focuses on establishing and maintaining quality standards for products and services across various industries in India.
- NIF is an autonomous body under the Department of Science and Technology, promoting grassroots innovation and recognizing local inventors. While NIF supports general technological and scientific innovations, it is not specifically focused on defence technology.
 
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                        Question 4 of 54. QuestionConsider the following with respect to the differences between DNA editing and RNA editing: - DNA editing makes permanent changes to a person’s genome while RNA editing makes temporary changes.
- Risk of undesirable reactions is more with RNA editing than DNA editing.
- DNA editing needs repeated treatments to sustain therapy’s effects while RNA editing requires only one such treatment.
 How many of the statements above are correct? Correct
 Solution (a) Explanation: - DNA editing introduces permanent changes to an individual’s genome, as it modifies the DNA sequence directly. This alteration is stable and passed on to future cell generations. In contrast, RNA editing modifies only the RNA, which is transient and degrades over time, meaning the changes are temporary. This temporary effect allows doctors to stop RNA-based treatments if side effects occur, providing a safety advantage over DNA editing. (Statement 1 is correct)
- RNA editing generally has a lower risk of undesirable immune reactions compared to DNA editing. DNA editing tools like CRISPR-Cas9 use bacterial proteins that can trigger immune responses in some patients, which may lead to allergic reactions. RNA editing, however, relies on ADAR enzymes (found naturally in the human body), reducing the risk of immune reactions. This makes RNA editing safer for people with immune sensitivities and those who need repeated treatments. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
- RNA editing requires repeated treatments to sustain the effects, as RNA molecules are short-lived and degrade over time. DNA editing, on the other hand, introduces permanent changes to the genome, so the effects are lasting and do not need repeated interventions. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
 Incorrect
 Solution (a) Explanation: - DNA editing introduces permanent changes to an individual’s genome, as it modifies the DNA sequence directly. This alteration is stable and passed on to future cell generations. In contrast, RNA editing modifies only the RNA, which is transient and degrades over time, meaning the changes are temporary. This temporary effect allows doctors to stop RNA-based treatments if side effects occur, providing a safety advantage over DNA editing. (Statement 1 is correct)
- RNA editing generally has a lower risk of undesirable immune reactions compared to DNA editing. DNA editing tools like CRISPR-Cas9 use bacterial proteins that can trigger immune responses in some patients, which may lead to allergic reactions. RNA editing, however, relies on ADAR enzymes (found naturally in the human body), reducing the risk of immune reactions. This makes RNA editing safer for people with immune sensitivities and those who need repeated treatments. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
- RNA editing requires repeated treatments to sustain the effects, as RNA molecules are short-lived and degrade over time. DNA editing, on the other hand, introduces permanent changes to the genome, so the effects are lasting and do not need repeated interventions. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
 
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                        Question 5 of 55. QuestionConsider the following statements: - USA is India’s fifth-largest source market for crude oil.
- China is the world’s top crude oil importer.
- India is the world’s third largest consumer of crude oil.
 Which of the statements above is/are correct? Correct
 Solution (d) Explanation: - According to recent data, the USA is India’s fifth-largest source of crude oil imports. The top sources for India are Russia, Iraq, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE, with the USA ranking fifth. This reflects a diversification strategy in India’s crude oil imports, reducing dependence on OPEC countries. (Statement 1 is correct)
- China is the world’s largest importer of crude oil, surpassing other countries due to its high industrial demand and population size. China’s significant oil imports have an impact on global oil demand, and policies or economic changes in China can influence global oil prices. (Statement 2 is correct)
- India is the third-largest consumer of crude oil globally, after the United States and China. India relies on crude oil imports for over 85% of its requirements, making it vulnerable to global oil price fluctuations and a key player in the global oil market. (Statement 3 is correct)
 Incorrect
 Solution (d) Explanation: - According to recent data, the USA is India’s fifth-largest source of crude oil imports. The top sources for India are Russia, Iraq, Saudi Arabia, and the UAE, with the USA ranking fifth. This reflects a diversification strategy in India’s crude oil imports, reducing dependence on OPEC countries. (Statement 1 is correct)
- China is the world’s largest importer of crude oil, surpassing other countries due to its high industrial demand and population size. China’s significant oil imports have an impact on global oil demand, and policies or economic changes in China can influence global oil prices. (Statement 2 is correct)
- India is the third-largest consumer of crude oil globally, after the United States and China. India relies on crude oil imports for over 85% of its requirements, making it vulnerable to global oil price fluctuations and a key player in the global oil market. (Statement 3 is correct)
 
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