Daily Quiz 3 December 2024
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
The geographical location of Kumbh Mela spans over four locations in India. Which one of the following is not one of this four locations?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
• Rishikesh, located in Uttarakhand on the banks of the Ganga River, is a renowned spiritual town known for yoga and meditation but is not one of the four designated locations for the Kumbh Mela. While it is a major religious site, it does not host the Kumbh Mela, which is celebrated based on specific astrological configurations at four sacred sites. (Option (a) is correct)
• Ujjain in Madhya Pradesh is one of the four designated locations for the Kumbh Mela. The festival is celebrated here on the banks of the Shipra River, with the Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga Temple being a significant focal point for devotees. The Ujjain Kumbh Mela, also called Simhastha Kumbh, is held when Jupiter is in Leo (Simha) zodiac sign, as per Hindu astrology.
• Prayagraj (formerly Allahabad) in Uttar Pradesh hosts the Kumbh Mela at the confluence of the Ganga, Yamuna, and the mythical Sarasvati rivers, also known as the Triveni Sangam. This site holds the most significant Kumbh Mela, often referred to as the Maha Kumbh Mela, which occurs every 12 years. The 2019 Kumbh Mela in Prayagraj attracted over 120 million pilgrims, making it one of the largest human gatherings in history.
• Nashik in Maharashtra is another designated site for the Kumbh Mela. The event takes place on the banks of the Godavari River, with the Trimbakeshwar Shiva Temple being a key pilgrimage site. The Nashik Kumbh Mela is celebrated when Jupiter and the Sun align in Leo (Simha Rashi), as per the Hindu calendar.Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/uttar-pradesh/uttar-pradesh-declares-maha-kumbh-area-new-district/article68937035.ece#:~:text=The%20U.P.,during%20the%20significant%20religious%20event&text=The%20Uttar%20Pradesh%20government%20on,as%20Maha%20Kumbh%20Mela%20district.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
• Rishikesh, located in Uttarakhand on the banks of the Ganga River, is a renowned spiritual town known for yoga and meditation but is not one of the four designated locations for the Kumbh Mela. While it is a major religious site, it does not host the Kumbh Mela, which is celebrated based on specific astrological configurations at four sacred sites. (Option (a) is correct)
• Ujjain in Madhya Pradesh is one of the four designated locations for the Kumbh Mela. The festival is celebrated here on the banks of the Shipra River, with the Mahakaleshwar Jyotirlinga Temple being a significant focal point for devotees. The Ujjain Kumbh Mela, also called Simhastha Kumbh, is held when Jupiter is in Leo (Simha) zodiac sign, as per Hindu astrology.
• Prayagraj (formerly Allahabad) in Uttar Pradesh hosts the Kumbh Mela at the confluence of the Ganga, Yamuna, and the mythical Sarasvati rivers, also known as the Triveni Sangam. This site holds the most significant Kumbh Mela, often referred to as the Maha Kumbh Mela, which occurs every 12 years. The 2019 Kumbh Mela in Prayagraj attracted over 120 million pilgrims, making it one of the largest human gatherings in history.
• Nashik in Maharashtra is another designated site for the Kumbh Mela. The event takes place on the banks of the Godavari River, with the Trimbakeshwar Shiva Temple being a key pilgrimage site. The Nashik Kumbh Mela is celebrated when Jupiter and the Sun align in Leo (Simha Rashi), as per the Hindu calendar.Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/uttar-pradesh/uttar-pradesh-declares-maha-kumbh-area-new-district/article68937035.ece#:~:text=The%20U.P.,during%20the%20significant%20religious%20event&text=The%20Uttar%20Pradesh%20government%20on,as%20Maha%20Kumbh%20Mela%20district.
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Question 2 of 5
2. Question
The famous Supreme Court judgement in the ‘Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation’ case is related to which of the following article of Indian constitution?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Article 356 of the Constitution allows the President of India to impose President’s Rule in a state if the constitutional machinery in the state fails. This article is not relevant to the Olga Tellis case, which dealt with the rights of slum dwellers under Article 21. Article 356 was invoked during the dismissal of state governments under various political circumstances, such as in 1992 during the Babri Masjid demolition fallout. (Option (a) is incorrect)
- Article 28 deals with the freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in educational institutions maintained by the state. It is unrelated to the Olga Tellis case, which was focused on the fundamental right to life and livelihood. Article 28 ensures secular education in government-funded institutions. (Option (b) is incorrect)
- Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. While Article 14 often plays a supporting role in fundamental rights cases, the Olga Tellis case specifically hinged on the interpretation of Article 21. The landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala invoked Article 14 along with other fundamental rights, establishing the basic structure doctrine. (Option (c) is incorrect)
- Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. In the Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985) case, the Supreme Court held that the right to livelihood is an integral part of the right to life under Article 21. The case involved slum dwellers and pavement dwellers in Mumbai who challenged their eviction by the Bombay Municipal Corporation. The court ruled that eviction without alternative arrangements would violate their fundamental rights under Article 21. (Option (d) is correct)
- Article 21 has been expanded through judicial interpretation to include rights like privacy (Justice K.S. Puttaswamy case) and education (Unni Krishnan case).
Judicial Interpretation of Article 21 · Article 21 has been interpreted expansively to include rights like:
· Right to clean environment (MC Mehta v. Union of India).
· Right to privacy (Justice K.S. Puttaswamy case).
· Right to live with dignity (Francis Coralie Mullin case).
Source: 11th Std NCERT – Political Theory
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Article 356 of the Constitution allows the President of India to impose President’s Rule in a state if the constitutional machinery in the state fails. This article is not relevant to the Olga Tellis case, which dealt with the rights of slum dwellers under Article 21. Article 356 was invoked during the dismissal of state governments under various political circumstances, such as in 1992 during the Babri Masjid demolition fallout. (Option (a) is incorrect)
- Article 28 deals with the freedom as to attendance at religious instruction or religious worship in educational institutions maintained by the state. It is unrelated to the Olga Tellis case, which was focused on the fundamental right to life and livelihood. Article 28 ensures secular education in government-funded institutions. (Option (b) is incorrect)
- Article 14 guarantees equality before the law and equal protection of the laws. While Article 14 often plays a supporting role in fundamental rights cases, the Olga Tellis case specifically hinged on the interpretation of Article 21. The landmark case of Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala invoked Article 14 along with other fundamental rights, establishing the basic structure doctrine. (Option (c) is incorrect)
- Article 21 of the Indian Constitution guarantees the right to life and personal liberty. In the Olga Tellis v. Bombay Municipal Corporation (1985) case, the Supreme Court held that the right to livelihood is an integral part of the right to life under Article 21. The case involved slum dwellers and pavement dwellers in Mumbai who challenged their eviction by the Bombay Municipal Corporation. The court ruled that eviction without alternative arrangements would violate their fundamental rights under Article 21. (Option (d) is correct)
- Article 21 has been expanded through judicial interpretation to include rights like privacy (Justice K.S. Puttaswamy case) and education (Unni Krishnan case).
Judicial Interpretation of Article 21 · Article 21 has been interpreted expansively to include rights like:
· Right to clean environment (MC Mehta v. Union of India).
· Right to privacy (Justice K.S. Puttaswamy case).
· Right to live with dignity (Francis Coralie Mullin case).
Source: 11th Std NCERT – Political Theory
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Question 3 of 5
3. Question
India’s 2014 Open Access Policy is related which of the following options:
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- While open access to government datasets is promoted under initiatives like the National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy (NDSAP), 2012, it is not related to the 2014 Open Access Policy. The Open Government Data (OGD) platform provides datasets from various ministries for public use, promoting transparency and innovation.
- India’s 2014 Open Access Policy mandates that all research funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and Department of Science & Technology (DST) be made freely accessible to the public through institutional repositories. The aim is to democratize access to publicly funded research and enhance global visibility of Indian research. The policy encourages depositing research publications in repositories like IndiaRxiv or institutional open-access archives immediately after publication. (Option (b) is correct)
- Judicial transparency and access to court records are under initiatives like the e-Courts project, which digitizes and makes case information publicly accessible. The e-Courts Mission Mode Project facilitates online access to case status, judgments, and orders.
- Open access to renewable energy technologies focuses on promoting their adoption through reduced intellectual property barriers. The International Solar Alliance (ISA) fosters collaboration on solar technology innovation and sharing but is not connected to India’s open-access research mandate.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- While open access to government datasets is promoted under initiatives like the National Data Sharing and Accessibility Policy (NDSAP), 2012, it is not related to the 2014 Open Access Policy. The Open Government Data (OGD) platform provides datasets from various ministries for public use, promoting transparency and innovation.
- India’s 2014 Open Access Policy mandates that all research funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT) and Department of Science & Technology (DST) be made freely accessible to the public through institutional repositories. The aim is to democratize access to publicly funded research and enhance global visibility of Indian research. The policy encourages depositing research publications in repositories like IndiaRxiv or institutional open-access archives immediately after publication. (Option (b) is correct)
- Judicial transparency and access to court records are under initiatives like the e-Courts project, which digitizes and makes case information publicly accessible. The e-Courts Mission Mode Project facilitates online access to case status, judgments, and orders.
- Open access to renewable energy technologies focuses on promoting their adoption through reduced intellectual property barriers. The International Solar Alliance (ISA) fosters collaboration on solar technology innovation and sharing but is not connected to India’s open-access research mandate.
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Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the PRAGATI system:
- PRAGATI is a multi-purpose platform aimed at resolving public grievances and monitoring key government projects.
- It integrates data from PM Gati Shakti, e-Samiksha, and CPGRAMS for real-time tracking and resolution.
- PRAGATI meetings are chaired by the Finance Minister of India every week.
How many of the statements above are correct?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation) is an ICT-based platform developed to facilitate real-time resolution of public grievances, monitor key government projects, and review the progress of flagship schemes. It integrates various stakeholder inputs to streamline governance processes. (Statement 1 is correct)
- PRAGATI integrates data from multiple platforms like CPGRAMS (Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System), e-Samiksha, and other government databases to ensure comprehensive and real-time tracking of issues. However, PM Gati Shakti integration is not explicitly mentioned as part of PRAGATI’s framework, as it deals with infrastructure planning separately. The integration enhances efficiency and transparency in governance. (Statement 2 is correct)
- PRAGATI meetings are chaired by the Prime Minister once a month, not every week. These meetings bring together officials from central and state governments to resolve inter-departmental and inter-state issues quickly. The Prime Minister has used PRAGATI to address bottlenecks in projects related to national highways, urban development, and rural electrification. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- PRAGATI (Pro-Active Governance and Timely Implementation) is an ICT-based platform developed to facilitate real-time resolution of public grievances, monitor key government projects, and review the progress of flagship schemes. It integrates various stakeholder inputs to streamline governance processes. (Statement 1 is correct)
- PRAGATI integrates data from multiple platforms like CPGRAMS (Centralized Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System), e-Samiksha, and other government databases to ensure comprehensive and real-time tracking of issues. However, PM Gati Shakti integration is not explicitly mentioned as part of PRAGATI’s framework, as it deals with infrastructure planning separately. The integration enhances efficiency and transparency in governance. (Statement 2 is correct)
- PRAGATI meetings are chaired by the Prime Minister once a month, not every week. These meetings bring together officials from central and state governments to resolve inter-departmental and inter-state issues quickly. The Prime Minister has used PRAGATI to address bottlenecks in projects related to national highways, urban development, and rural electrification. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
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Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Every chromosome contains a single DNA molecule that runs from end to end.
- A DNA molecule has three strands.
- Simple tandem repeats (STRs) are associated with DNA.
Which of the statements above is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Each chromosome is composed of a single, continuous DNA molecule that is highly coiled and condensed into a chromosomal structure. This allows for the efficient storage of genetic information and its organization in the nucleus of cells. The DNA molecule carries genetic instructions encoded in the form of sequences of nucleotide bases. In humans, chromosomes range from approximately 50 million to 250 million base pairs in length. (Statement 1 is correct)
- DNA is typically composed of two complementary strands forming a double helix structure. The strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between complementary nitrogenous bases (Adenine-Thymine and Cytosine-Guanine). A three-stranded DNA structure (triplex DNA) can form under experimental or specific conditions but is not a natural feature of DNA in most organisms. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
- Simple Tandem Repeats (STRs) are short sequences of DNA (typically 2-6 base pairs) that are repeated multiple times in a head-to-tail manner. STRs are highly variable among individuals, making them useful in genetic profiling and forensic analysis. (Statement 3 is correct)
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Each chromosome is composed of a single, continuous DNA molecule that is highly coiled and condensed into a chromosomal structure. This allows for the efficient storage of genetic information and its organization in the nucleus of cells. The DNA molecule carries genetic instructions encoded in the form of sequences of nucleotide bases. In humans, chromosomes range from approximately 50 million to 250 million base pairs in length. (Statement 1 is correct)
- DNA is typically composed of two complementary strands forming a double helix structure. The strands are held together by hydrogen bonds between complementary nitrogenous bases (Adenine-Thymine and Cytosine-Guanine). A three-stranded DNA structure (triplex DNA) can form under experimental or specific conditions but is not a natural feature of DNA in most organisms. (Statement 2 is incorrect)
- Simple Tandem Repeats (STRs) are short sequences of DNA (typically 2-6 base pairs) that are repeated multiple times in a head-to-tail manner. STRs are highly variable among individuals, making them useful in genetic profiling and forensic analysis. (Statement 3 is correct)
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