Daily Quiz 19 November 2024
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                        Question 1 of 51. QuestionWhich of the following articles of the Constitution of India allows the Union to legislate on topics that are usually assigned to the States during times of war or external aggression? Correct
 Solution (b) 
 Explanation:
 • Article 356 deals with the imposition of President’s Rule in a state when there is a failure of constitutional machinery. It does not pertain to the Union’s power to legislate on State List subjects during times of war or external aggression.
 • Article 249 empowers the Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority that doing so is necessary in the national interest. This provision ensures that the Union can address legislative needs on critical state subjects in extraordinary circumstances, such as during times of war or external aggression. (Option (b) is correct)
 • Article 255 relates to the validation of laws that may lack procedural compliance, such as obtaining prior recommendations or assent. It does not grant powers to the Union for legislating on state matters during emergencies.
 • Article 189 deals with the voting and quorum in State Legislatures. It ensures the functioning of legislative assemblies but does not concern the Union’s legislative powers over the State List during war or external aggression.Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/manipur-as-a-case-for-imposing-article-356/article68883184.ece Incorrect
 Solution (b) 
 Explanation:
 • Article 356 deals with the imposition of President’s Rule in a state when there is a failure of constitutional machinery. It does not pertain to the Union’s power to legislate on State List subjects during times of war or external aggression.
 • Article 249 empowers the Parliament to legislate on matters in the State List if the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a two-thirds majority that doing so is necessary in the national interest. This provision ensures that the Union can address legislative needs on critical state subjects in extraordinary circumstances, such as during times of war or external aggression. (Option (b) is correct)
 • Article 255 relates to the validation of laws that may lack procedural compliance, such as obtaining prior recommendations or assent. It does not grant powers to the Union for legislating on state matters during emergencies.
 • Article 189 deals with the voting and quorum in State Legislatures. It ensures the functioning of legislative assemblies but does not concern the Union’s legislative powers over the State List during war or external aggression.Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/manipur-as-a-case-for-imposing-article-356/article68883184.ece 
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                        Question 2 of 52. QuestionWith respect to the Centralized Pension Payment System (CPPS), identify the incorrect statement from the following statements: Correct
 Solution (d) Explanation: - The Centralized Pension Payment System (CPPS) allows pensioners under the Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995, to receive their pensions from any bank, any branch, across India. This eliminates the restrictions of location-specific banking, ensuring seamless disbursement. (Option (a) is correct)
- The CPPS is being implemented as part of the EPFO’s IT modernization initiative, CITES 2.01, and is set to be operational from 1st January 2025. This modernization project aims to improve efficiency and user experience for pensioners. (Option (b) is correct)
- In its next phase, the CPPS will facilitate a smooth transition to an Aadhaar-based payment system (ABPS). This aligns with India’s broader goals of leveraging Aadhaar for seamless and efficient public service delivery. (Option (c) is correct)
 Significance of CPPS · Benefits 78 lakh pensioners under the Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995. · Resolves logistical challenges in pension disbursement, like location or branch dependency. · Promotes financial inclusion and administrative efficiency. Key Features · Centralized pension disbursement through IT-enabled infrastructure. · No physical verification required at bank branches for pension commencement. · Cost reduction in pension disbursement. - Under the CPPS, Pension Payment Orders (PPO) will not need to be transferred when pensioners move or change banks/branches. This centralized system ensures uninterrupted pension disbursement without requiring additional administrative processes. (Option (d) is incorrect)
 Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/end-logjam-for-epfo-pensioners/article68883148.ece#:~:text=Under%20the%20new%20system%20that,time%20of%20commencement%20of%20pension. & https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2051703 Incorrect
 Solution (d) Explanation: - The Centralized Pension Payment System (CPPS) allows pensioners under the Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995, to receive their pensions from any bank, any branch, across India. This eliminates the restrictions of location-specific banking, ensuring seamless disbursement. (Option (a) is correct)
- The CPPS is being implemented as part of the EPFO’s IT modernization initiative, CITES 2.01, and is set to be operational from 1st January 2025. This modernization project aims to improve efficiency and user experience for pensioners. (Option (b) is correct)
- In its next phase, the CPPS will facilitate a smooth transition to an Aadhaar-based payment system (ABPS). This aligns with India’s broader goals of leveraging Aadhaar for seamless and efficient public service delivery. (Option (c) is correct)
 Significance of CPPS · Benefits 78 lakh pensioners under the Employees’ Pension Scheme, 1995. · Resolves logistical challenges in pension disbursement, like location or branch dependency. · Promotes financial inclusion and administrative efficiency. Key Features · Centralized pension disbursement through IT-enabled infrastructure. · No physical verification required at bank branches for pension commencement. · Cost reduction in pension disbursement. - Under the CPPS, Pension Payment Orders (PPO) will not need to be transferred when pensioners move or change banks/branches. This centralized system ensures uninterrupted pension disbursement without requiring additional administrative processes. (Option (d) is incorrect)
 Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/end-logjam-for-epfo-pensioners/article68883148.ece#:~:text=Under%20the%20new%20system%20that,time%20of%20commencement%20of%20pension. & https://pib.gov.in/PressReleaseIframePage.aspx?PRID=2051703 
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                        Question 3 of 53. QuestionThe Chennai-Vladivostok eastern maritime corridor does not go through which of the following water bodies? Correct
 Solution (c) Explanation: - The Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor is a vital maritime route between India and Russia’s Far East. The corridor enhances connectivity for trade in oil, food, and machinery, supporting India’s ‘maritime vision 2047’. It aims to strengthen economic and strategic ties with Russia and other countries in the Indo-Pacific region.
- The corridor passes through the South China Sea, a key waterway for international maritime trade. After traversing the Straits of Malacca, the route enters the South China Sea before continuing towards the Sea of Japan and Vladivostok.
- The maritime corridor begins in Chennai, located on the southeastern coast of India, and traverses the Bay of Bengal before reaching the Straits of Malacca. This is an essential starting point of the route.
- The Gulf of Aden, located near the Arabian Peninsula and part of the route connecting the Indian Ocean to the Red Sea via the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait, is not involved in the Chennai-Vladivostok corridor. The corridor entirely focuses on the eastern maritime route through the Indo-Pacific. (Option (c) is correct)
 India’s Maritime Vision 2047 · Aims to position India as a leading maritime nation. · Focuses on infrastructure development, trade connectivity, and maritime security. Examples: · India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC): Complementary maritime projects connecting other regions. · Sagarmala Project: Enhancing India’s port connectivity and trade efficiency. - The corridor traverses the Sea of Japan after the South China Sea and East China Sea, leading to Vladivostok, which lies on Russia’s Pacific coast.
 Incorrect
 Solution (c) Explanation: - The Chennai-Vladivostok Eastern Maritime Corridor is a vital maritime route between India and Russia’s Far East. The corridor enhances connectivity for trade in oil, food, and machinery, supporting India’s ‘maritime vision 2047’. It aims to strengthen economic and strategic ties with Russia and other countries in the Indo-Pacific region.
- The corridor passes through the South China Sea, a key waterway for international maritime trade. After traversing the Straits of Malacca, the route enters the South China Sea before continuing towards the Sea of Japan and Vladivostok.
- The maritime corridor begins in Chennai, located on the southeastern coast of India, and traverses the Bay of Bengal before reaching the Straits of Malacca. This is an essential starting point of the route.
- The Gulf of Aden, located near the Arabian Peninsula and part of the route connecting the Indian Ocean to the Red Sea via the Bab-el-Mandeb Strait, is not involved in the Chennai-Vladivostok corridor. The corridor entirely focuses on the eastern maritime route through the Indo-Pacific. (Option (c) is correct)
 India’s Maritime Vision 2047 · Aims to position India as a leading maritime nation. · Focuses on infrastructure development, trade connectivity, and maritime security. Examples: · India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC): Complementary maritime projects connecting other regions. · Sagarmala Project: Enhancing India’s port connectivity and trade efficiency. - The corridor traverses the Sea of Japan after the South China Sea and East China Sea, leading to Vladivostok, which lies on Russia’s Pacific coast.
 
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                        Question 4 of 54. QuestionConsider the following statements with respect to the Sixth Assessment Report of the U.N. Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change: - The report concludes that global warming of 1.5°C above pre-industrial levels is unavoidable, even with immediate emission reductions.
- It highlights that methane emissions have a significantly higher short-term warming potential compared to carbon dioxide.
- The report emphasizes the need for a just transition to clean energy to achieve net-zero emissions by 2050.
 How many of the statements above are correct? Correct
 Solution (b) Explanation: - The Sixth Assessment Report (AR6) of the IPCC states that while global warming has already reached approximately 1.1°C, limiting warming to 1.5°C is still possible with rapid and deep reductions in greenhouse gas emissions. However, achieving this target requires unprecedented efforts globally. Warming above 1.5°C may occur temporarily if emissions are not curtailed immediately, but it is not deemed entirely unavoidable. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
- Methane (CH₄) has a Global Warming Potential (GWP) approximately 80 times greater than CO₂ over a 20-year timeframe. The AR6 emphasizes the importance of reducing methane emissions as part of global efforts to mitigate short-term warming, particularly from sectors like agriculture, waste, and energy production. (Statement 2 is correct)
- The AR6 underscores the importance of a just transition to clean energy systems that consider equity and social justice. This involves ensuring that vulnerable populations, including workers in traditional energy sectors, are not disproportionately affected. It identifies net-zero emissions by 2050 as a crucial milestone to stabilize global temperatures and prevent catastrophic impacts of climate change. (Statement 3 is correct)
 Incorrect
 Solution (b) Explanation: - The Sixth Assessment Report (AR6) of the IPCC states that while global warming has already reached approximately 1.1°C, limiting warming to 1.5°C is still possible with rapid and deep reductions in greenhouse gas emissions. However, achieving this target requires unprecedented efforts globally. Warming above 1.5°C may occur temporarily if emissions are not curtailed immediately, but it is not deemed entirely unavoidable. (Statement 1 is incorrect)
- Methane (CH₄) has a Global Warming Potential (GWP) approximately 80 times greater than CO₂ over a 20-year timeframe. The AR6 emphasizes the importance of reducing methane emissions as part of global efforts to mitigate short-term warming, particularly from sectors like agriculture, waste, and energy production. (Statement 2 is correct)
- The AR6 underscores the importance of a just transition to clean energy systems that consider equity and social justice. This involves ensuring that vulnerable populations, including workers in traditional energy sectors, are not disproportionately affected. It identifies net-zero emissions by 2050 as a crucial milestone to stabilize global temperatures and prevent catastrophic impacts of climate change. (Statement 3 is correct)
 
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                        Question 5 of 55. QuestionConsider the following statements with reference to the Nuclear Non-proliferation treaty (NPT): - It is the only binding commitment in a multilateral treaty to the goal of disarmament by the nuclear-weapon States.
- 191 States have joined this treaty, including the five nuclear-weapon States.
- India is signatory to this treaty.
 Which of the statements above is/are correct? Correct
 Solution (a) Explanation: - The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), adopted in 1968, is the only multilateral treaty that includes a binding commitment by the five recognized nuclear-weapon states (United States, Russia, China, France, and the United Kingdom) to work towards nuclear disarmament under Article VI. It aims to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons, promote peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and achieve nuclear disarmament. (Statement 1 is correct)
- The NPT has 191 member states, making it one of the most widely adhered-to treaties globally. This includes the five recognized nuclear-weapon states under the treaty (the P5: USA, Russia, China, France, and the UK). However, key nations like India, Pakistan, and Israel have not joined the treaty, and North Korea withdrew in 2003. (Statement 2 is correct)
- India is not a signatory to the NPT. India objects to the treaty as it considers it discriminatory, recognizing only the P5 as legitimate nuclear-weapon states. India argues that the treaty does not acknowledge the principle of universal and non-discriminatory disarmament. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
 Key Provisions of the NPT · Non-proliferation: Prevents the spread of nuclear weapons to non-nuclear states. · Peaceful Use of Nuclear Energy: Encourages peaceful applications of nuclear energy under international safeguards. · Disarmament: Commits nuclear-weapon states to pursue nuclear disarmament. India’s Stand on the NPT · Criticizes the treaty as discriminatory since it does not recognize India, despite its advanced nuclear capabilities. · Advocates for a comprehensive and universal framework for nuclear disarmament. · India adheres to a “no first use” policy and supports the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) in principle, though it has not ratified it. Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/fossil-fuels-nuclear-weapons-treaty-explained-9675897/ & https://disarmament.unoda.org/wmd/nuclear/npt/#:~:text=The%20NPT%20is%20a%20landmark,and%20general%20and%20complete%20disarmament. Incorrect
 Solution (a) Explanation: - The Nuclear Non-Proliferation Treaty (NPT), adopted in 1968, is the only multilateral treaty that includes a binding commitment by the five recognized nuclear-weapon states (United States, Russia, China, France, and the United Kingdom) to work towards nuclear disarmament under Article VI. It aims to prevent the spread of nuclear weapons, promote peaceful uses of nuclear energy, and achieve nuclear disarmament. (Statement 1 is correct)
- The NPT has 191 member states, making it one of the most widely adhered-to treaties globally. This includes the five recognized nuclear-weapon states under the treaty (the P5: USA, Russia, China, France, and the UK). However, key nations like India, Pakistan, and Israel have not joined the treaty, and North Korea withdrew in 2003. (Statement 2 is correct)
- India is not a signatory to the NPT. India objects to the treaty as it considers it discriminatory, recognizing only the P5 as legitimate nuclear-weapon states. India argues that the treaty does not acknowledge the principle of universal and non-discriminatory disarmament. (Statement 3 is incorrect)
 Key Provisions of the NPT · Non-proliferation: Prevents the spread of nuclear weapons to non-nuclear states. · Peaceful Use of Nuclear Energy: Encourages peaceful applications of nuclear energy under international safeguards. · Disarmament: Commits nuclear-weapon states to pursue nuclear disarmament. India’s Stand on the NPT · Criticizes the treaty as discriminatory since it does not recognize India, despite its advanced nuclear capabilities. · Advocates for a comprehensive and universal framework for nuclear disarmament. · India adheres to a “no first use” policy and supports the Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT) in principle, though it has not ratified it. Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/explained/explained-climate/fossil-fuels-nuclear-weapons-treaty-explained-9675897/ & https://disarmament.unoda.org/wmd/nuclear/npt/#:~:text=The%20NPT%20is%20a%20landmark,and%20general%20and%20complete%20disarmament. 
Leaderboard: Daily Quiz 19 November 2024
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