Daily Quiz

Solution (d)
Explanation:
• Karnataka recently launched its first digital population clock in Bengaluru at the Institute for Social and Economic Change (ISEC) on November 8, 2024. The clock provides real-time population estimates for both Karnataka and India, aiming to raise public awareness of population dynamics and encourage data-driven discussions on demographic trends. (Option (d) is correct)

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/karnataka/bengalurus-first-digital-population-clock-to-be-inaugurated-today/article68840995.ece

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• Par in parem non habet imperium, or the principle of non-intervention, asserts that each state is equal and sovereign and that one state should not interfere in the internal affairs of another. This principle is a key aspect of sovereign equality and is enshrined in the United Nations Charter. (Option (a) is incorrect)
• The presumption of regularity is a legal principle meaning that actions taken by a government official are presumed lawful and valid unless proven otherwise. This concept applies in administrative law and is not a principle related to the obligations of treaties or international agreements. (Option (b) is incorrect)
• Pacta sunt servanda is a fundamental principle in international law that means “agreements must be kept.” It asserts that states and parties entering into treaties or contracts are obligated to fulfill their commitments in good faith. This principle underpins the Vienna Convention on the Law of Treaties (1969) and is essential for maintaining trust and stability in international relations. (Option (c) is correct)
• The principle of sovereign immunity, based on state sovereignty, implies that a state and its officials cannot be tried by foreign courts for actions taken in their official capacity. This doctrine is rooted in the respect for the autonomy of states and is distinct from the obligation to honor agreements. (Option (d) is incorrect)

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/all-eyes-on-baku-and-the-climate-finance-goal/article68842032.ece

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Part III of the Indian Constitution deals with Fundamental Rights (Articles 12-35). These rights protect individual liberties and rights of citizens, such as the right to equality, freedom, and protection against discrimination.
• Part IV of the Indian Constitution contains the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSPs) (Articles 36-51), which provide guidelines to the state on matters of social and economic policy. Article 39(b), specifically, states that the “ownership and control of the material resources of the community are so distributed as best to subserve the common good.” The DPSPs aim to create conditions for social welfare and economic equality and, although non-justiciable, guide the state in governance. (Option (b) is correct)
• Part II of the Indian Constitution deals with citizenship (Articles 5-11). It specifies who can be an Indian citizen at the commencement of the Constitution and covers related matters, but it does not discuss resource distribution or the common good.
• Part V of the Constitution addresses the Union Government (Articles 52-151), including the President, Parliament, and the executive. It lays down the powers, duties, and structure of the Union government but does not cover principles related to the distribution of resources for the common good.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/can-all-private-properties-be-acquired-by-the-state-explained/article68840840.ece

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• India was the first country in the world to legally mandate Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) for certain companies through the Companies Act, 2013. This mandate requires eligible companies to spend at least 2% of their average net profits over the preceding three years on CSR activities. The aim is to encourage companies to participate in social development and contribute to the community. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Section 135 of the Companies Act, 2013 specifically addresses CSR requirements for companies meeting certain thresholds in terms of net worth, turnover, or net profit. This section mandates eligible companies to form a CSR committee, create a CSR policy, and spend on specified CSR activities, such as eradicating hunger, promoting education, and environmental sustainability. (Statement 2 is correct)
• The National CSR Exchange Portal is an initiative by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA), not the Ministry of Finance. This portal serves as a platform for companies and implementing agencies to find suitable CSR projects and connect with each other. It aims to improve transparency and facilitate effective CSR spending by matching CSR resources with projects that need funding. (Statement 3 is incorrect)

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/agriculture/tracking-lacuna-limits-csrs-contributions-to-agri-sustainability-analysis/article68842500.ece

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Millets are known for their high mineral content, particularly in calcium, iron, magnesium, and phosphorus. These minerals make millets nutritionally valuable, especially in diets lacking in other sources of these essential nutrients, contributing to bone health and blood health. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Millets contain various phyto-chemicals, including phenolic compounds and flavonoids. These compounds have antioxidant properties, which help in reducing oxidative stress and may provide health benefits like improved immune function and reduced risk of chronic diseases. (Statement 2 is correct)
• Removing the bran (the outer layer) from millets generally reduces their nutrient content, including fiber, vitamins, minerals, and some proteins. The bran is an important part of the grain’s nutritional profile. Removing it typically results in a lower overall nutrient density, including protein content, rather than an increase in protein. (Statement 3 is incorrect)

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/agriculture/keep-the-bran-on-millets-to-retain-health-benefits-study/article68841361.ece