Daily Quiz

Solution (b)
Explanation:
• M.C. Mehta vs Union of India is a landmark case led to various environmental protections, including those addressing air and water pollution. It resulted in significant environmental jurisprudence in India. M.C. Mehta vs Union of India is famous for cases like the Ganga Pollution case and Oleum Gas Leak case, focusing on pollution control measures. (Option (a) is incorrect)
• In April 2024, the Supreme Court of India recognized a human right against the adverse impacts of climate change in the M.K. Ranjitsinh and Others vs Union of India judgment, marking a significant development in climate justice in India. The case is noted for its groundbreaking recognition of climate change impacts as a violation of fundamental rights under the Indian Constitution. (Option (b) is correct)
• T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs Union of India is crucial in Indian environmental law, focusing on forest conservation and the interpretation of the Forest Conservation Act, 1980. It led to the establishment of the Central Empowered Committee (CEC) to monitor forest matters. While important for forest conservation, this case did not deal directly with climate change as a fundamental right. (Option (c) is incorrect)
• T.N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs Union of India case is crucial in Indian environmental law, focusing on forest conservation and the interpretation of the Forest Conservation Act, 1980. It led to the establishment of the Central Empowered Committee (CEC) to monitor forest matters. (Option (d) is incorrect)

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/lead/a-moment-for-just-transition-litigation-to-take-wing/article68502315.ece#:~:text=As%20of%20today%2C%20Land%20Conflict,of%20just%20transition%20in%20India.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• Common diseases with large patient populations are typically not considered orphan diseases because they affect a significant portion of the population, making them commercially viable. (Option (a) is incorrect)
• Lifestyle-related disorders, such as diabetes and hypertension, are prevalent and do not fall under the category of orphan diseases. These conditions are widespread and often included in government health schemes; they are not considered rare diseases requiring orphan drugs. (Option (b) is incorrect)
• While tropical diseases may receive limited global research funding, they are not classified as orphan diseases unless they are rare. Orphan drugs specifically target rare conditions with limited patient populations, not diseases that are prevalent in specific regions like tropical diseases. (Option (c) is incorrect)
• Orphan drugs are developed to treat rare medical conditions, often with limited commercial potential due to the small patient population. The term “orphan drugs” is used to describe drugs that treat conditions so rare that the pharmaceutical industry has little incentive to develop and market them. In India, this threshold is often defined as affecting fewer than 500,000 people. (Option (d) is correct)

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/clinical-trial-government-announces-waiver-for-several-drugs-approved-from-select-countries/article68500428.ece#:~:text=In%20a%20decision%20that%20would,%2C%20Canada%2C%20and%20European%20Union.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• The Check Truncation System (CTS) is designed to stop the physical movement of checks and instead transmit an electronic image to the paying bank for processing. This reduces the physical handling and transportation of checks, leading to faster processing times and lower costs. The main advantage of CTS is the reduction in the physical movement of checks, as described in the content. This helps in quicker clearing and reduces the associated logistical costs. (Option (a) is correct)
• While CTS reduces the need to move physical checks, it does not eliminate the requirement for maintaining physical copies. In certain cases, physical checks might still be required, especially in disputes or other exceptional circumstances. Banks may still need to retain physical checks for legal and regulatory reasons, even with the use of CTS. (Option (b) is incorrect)
• Although CTS automates part of the check processing system, it does not entirely eliminate the need for manual verification, particularly in cases where discrepancies or suspicions arise. Manual verification might still be necessary, especially in cases involving high-value transactions or potential fraud. (Option (c) is incorrect)
• CTS improves the efficiency and speed of check processing, but it does not enable real-time settlement. A clearing period is still required, though it may be shortened due to faster processing. The settlement process for checks, even under CTS, requires time, as the system ensures that funds are available and properly transferred between accounts. (Option (d) is incorrect)

Source:https://www.rbi.org.in/commonperson/english/scripts/FAQs.aspx?Id=273 & https://www.thehindu.com/business/rbi-announces-continuous-clearing-of-cheques-under-cts/article68500069.ece#:~:text=For%20expeditious%20clearance%20of%20cheques,of%20two%20days%20taken%20currently.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Body tissues, especially those containing nucleated cells (such as blood), are rich sources of DNA. Blood is often used in DNA extraction due to the abundance of white blood cells, which are rich in DNA. Tissues like blood are commonly used in genetic testing and research for their high DNA content. (Statement 1 is correct)
• Saliva is also a rich source of DNA. It contains cells from the inner lining of the mouth, which can provide sufficient DNA for various analyses, including genetic testing and forensic applications. Saliva-based DNA tests are widely used because of the non-invasive collection method and the adequate amount of DNA they can provide. (Statement 2 is correct)
• Hair roots do contain DNA, but they are considered less rich in DNA compared to blood and saliva. DNA extraction from hair is more challenging and typically yields less DNA, making it a less preferred source. While hair roots can still be used in forensic investigations, the DNA yield is often lower and more degraded compared to other sources like blood and saliva. (Statement 3 is incorrect)

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/dna-profiling-and-its-scientific-value-in-establishing-guilt-or-innocence-in-the-justice-system/article68500515.ece#:~:text=It%20may%20be%2C%20for%20example,in%20a%20court%20of%20law.%E2%80%9D

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The WHO’s recently-released ‘Pathogens Prioritisation’ report is a framework developed to guide global research and preparedness efforts for potential future epidemics and pandemics. The report was created with contributions from over 200 scientists across 54 countries and evaluates evidence related to 28 viral families and one core group of bacteria, encompassing 1,652 pathogens.
• Sarbecovirus is a subgenus of coronaviruses, which includes SARS-CoV-2, the virus responsible for COVID-19. Given the global impact of COVID-19, Sarbecovirus has been included in the WHO’s list of “priority pathogens” for research and preparedness. (Statement 1 is correct)
• The Nipah virus is a highly pathogenic virus known to cause severe respiratory illness and encephalitis. It has caused outbreaks in South and Southeast Asia, with high mortality rates, leading to its classification as a priority pathogen by the WHO. (Statement 2 is correct)
• The Ebola virus is well-known for causing severe hemorrhagic fever and has led to multiple outbreaks in Africa, with high fatality rates. Due to its deadly nature and potential for rapid spread, Ebola has been on the WHO’s list of priority pathogens for several years. (Statement 3 is correct)

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/health/in-its-2024-report-who-lists-over-30-pathogens-that-could-perhaps-start-the-next-pandemic/article68498089.ece#:~:text=What%20else%20is%20new%20on,erupted%20in%20parts%20of%20Africa.